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CCNA 3 FINAL v4.0 (91,8%) Updated 20/9/2008

2008-11-10T20:01:00.016-08:00

-----------4 New Question Updated 30/10/08-----------------
1
Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?

requires no authentication

uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm

requires the use of an authentication server

requires a mutually agreed upon password

2

Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. What will be pruned in the VTP advertisements from switch ST-C to switch ST-1?
VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
VLAN 1, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 2 through VLAN 29, and VLAN 31 through VLAN 1000

3

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will drop the packet.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

4

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.

An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.

An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

-------------------/4 New Question----------------------------------------

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1

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the
Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied

to the switch?

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10 ******TRUE
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?

802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. ******TRUE
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

3
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk. ******TRUE
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4

Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID ******TRUE

OFDM

WEP

DSSS

5

Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?

SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.

SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop. ******TRUE

SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.

SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS
routing
trunking ******TRUE
VPN

7

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port. ******TRUE
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port. ******TRUE
8
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain. ******TRUE
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number. ******TRUE
9

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN. ******TRUE
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk. ******TRUE
11
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration. ******TRUE
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated. ******TRUE

13

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3 ******TRUE

add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table

forward the frame out Interface3

discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces

forward the frame out Interface2
14

Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies. ******TRUE
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use. ******TRUE
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28 ******TRUE
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk. ******TRUE
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4. ******TRUE
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2. ******TRUE
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18
Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
computer C and Router1 ******TRUE
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The SSH version number is wrong.

SSH has been configured on the wrong line.

Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.

The transport input command is configured incorrectly. ******TRUE

20
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C ******TRUE
Cat-D
21
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 ******TRUE
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?

The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.

Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15. ******TRUE

This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23

Which three statements are ******TRUE regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
requires the use of subinterfaces on the router ******TRUE
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces ******TRUE
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface ******TRUE
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

24

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain. ******TRUE
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)

S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2 ******TRUE
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3 ******TRUE

26
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

The switch is sending and receiving data frames. ******TRUE
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password. ******TRUE
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28

What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
reduced contention for bandwidth ******TRUE
reduced size of the physical layout
increased fault tolerance of the network ******TRUE
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
simplification of management and troubleshooting ******TRUE
29
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced. ******TRUE
A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use. ******TRUE
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design. ******TRUE
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1. ******TRUE

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

31

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
Gateway and CS1 ******TRUE
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32

Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1. ******TRUE
The flash directory contains the IOS image. ******TRUE
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex. ******TRUE

33

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked. ******TRUE
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting. ******TRUE

34

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol. ******TRUE
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are ******TRUE about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2. ******TRUE
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated. ******TRUE

36

What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
Select the correct VTP mode and version. ******TRUE
Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain. ******TRUE
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain. ******TRUE
37

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C ******TRUE
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

38
Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ******TRUE?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration. ******TRUE
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

39
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are ******TRUE regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch. ******TRUE
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch. ******TRUE
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

40

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

The switch ports are on different VLANs. ******TRUE

The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
The hosts are configured on different logical networks. ******TRUE
A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2. ******TRUE
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F ******TRUE
42
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1
switch SW1 ******TRUE
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
43
Top of Form
Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers. ******TRUE
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking. ******TRUE
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45
What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
force the port to be a part of a single vlan ******TRUE

46

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is ******TRUE regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs ******TRUE.

47

Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
BSSID ******TRUE
ESSID

48

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?

A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped. ******TRUE
The security violation count will be incremented.
49
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
transparent ******TRUE

50
Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser. ******TRUE
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51
Top of Form
What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries. ******TRUE
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52

What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range ******TRUE
permits increased data rates ******TRUE
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

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1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.

Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.

The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.

All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

The username and password are not configured correctly.

The authentication method is not configured correctly.

The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

The vtys are not configured correctly.

3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.

The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.

The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.

The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs

tricks users into running the infected software

a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event

exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.

The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.

The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.

Port address translation is in effect.

6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?

Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.

Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.

Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.

Company A is closer to the service provider.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)

This network is experiencing congestion.

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Data is not flowing in this network.

The network is discarding eligible packets.

The DLCI is globally significant.

9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6

NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address

a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2

static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)

A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.

A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.

It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.

The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.

When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.

Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.

13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP

14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

application layer

15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)

when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP

when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.

Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.

The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.

17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?

broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections

satellite based network connections

dedicated point-to-point circuits

Frame Relay PVCs

18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type

interface reset

PPP negotiation failure

unplugged cable

19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

A modem terminates a digital local loop.

A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

A modem terminates an analog local loop.

A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.

LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.

The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.

22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.

The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.

A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.

A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?

MAC address of the Orlando router

MAC address of the DC router

192.168.1.25

192.168.1.26

DLCI 100

DLCI 200

24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?

lower cost

lower latency and jitter

variable bandwidth capacity

fewer physical router interfaces

25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP

CDP updates

SNMP services

RIP authentication

26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

27. Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.

Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .

29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.

The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.

The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.

The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)

It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.

It defines a process for managing security violations.

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.

It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.

It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?

All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.

The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.

All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.

Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.

33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

use the copy tftp: flash: command

boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually

telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password

boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes

34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)

The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.

The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.

The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.

A table of static mappings can be searched.

The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

data link

physical

36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface fa0/0/0, inbound

interface fa0/0/0, outbound

interface fa0/0/1, inbound

interface fa0/0/1, outbound

37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

SSH is unable to pass through NAT.

There are incorrect access control list entries.

The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.

The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.

38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.

Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.

There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.

The physical connection between the two routers has failed.

The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?

Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2

40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.

RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.

41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

Wi-Fi

WiMAX

satellite

Metro Ethernet

42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.

Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?

From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.

From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.

From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.

From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?

defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network

45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.

Which statement applies to this situation?

Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.

Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

172.30.20.1:3333

192.168.1.2:80

47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.

Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.

Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.

Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.

Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.

Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)

Security options are build into IPv6.

IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.

IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.

There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.

When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.

50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.

The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.

The RIPng network command is not configured.

The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.

51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

demarcation point

local loop

cloud

52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.

The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)

exchange information about the status of virtual circuits

map DLCIs to network addresses

provide flow control

provide error notification

provide congestion notification

send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

CHAP

Stacker

IPCP

CDPCP

Multilink

55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)

checksum

digital certificates

encapsulation

encryption

www.ccna-4.blogspot.com

CISCO CCNA netacad 4 semester Questions

2008-11-10T20:01:00.010-08:00

CISCO CCNA netacad 4 semester Questions

CCNA1,CCNA2,CCNA3,CCNA4 FINAL

Semester 1 :
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Semester 2 :
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Semester 3 :
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Semester 4 :
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VOUCHER Exam :
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CISCO Certifications:
CCNA: 640-802
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We only offer the Questions. We don't guarantee the correct answers.

CCNA4 Module 5 ACLs(100%)

2008-11-10T20:01:00.009-08:00

CCNA4 v 4.0 Exam chapter 5 ACLs

>>DOWNLOAD<<

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

	blocked in and out of all interfaces
	blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
	permitted in and out of all interfaces
	blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

	packet size
	protocol suite
	source address
	destination address
	source router interface
	destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

	by destination UDP port
	by protocol type
	by source IP address
	by source UDP port
	by destination IP address

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

	Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
	Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
	Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
	Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
	Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

	close to the source
	close to the destination
	on an Ethernet port
	on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

	An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
	A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
	A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
	A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
	Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
	Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

	The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
	The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
	The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
	The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
	The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

	FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
	All traffic is implicitly denied.
	FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
	Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
	Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

	The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
	Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
	The network administrator receives an error.
	Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

	ISP Fa0/0 outbound
	R2 S0/0/1 inbound
	R3 Fa0/0 inbound
	R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

	Only named ACLs allow comments.
	Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
	Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
	Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
	More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

	extended ACL
	reflexive ACL
	console logging
	authentication
	Telnet connectivity
	user account with a privilege level of 15

13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

	It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
	It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
	It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
	It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

	dynamic
	port-based
	reflexive
	time-based

15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

	TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
	TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
	Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
	Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

	The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
	The access list statements are misconfigured.
	All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
	No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

	Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
	The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
	The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
	The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?

	Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
	Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
	Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
	Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true

	Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
	They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
	They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
	When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

	Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
	Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
	Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
	In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

	the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
	the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
	the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
	the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

	172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
	127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
	172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
	172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
	172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)

	Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
	The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
	The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
	A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
	A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

	It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
	It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
	It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
	It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?

	Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
	Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
	Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
	Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

	The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
	The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
	The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
	The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.

CCNA4 MODULE 3

2008-11-10T20:01:00.008-08:00

Take Assessment - EWAN Chapter 3 - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)


	Top of Form	Time Remaining: Bottom of Form

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Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?
	R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1 R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102 R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1 R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
	R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1 R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102 R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301 R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1 R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103 R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201
	R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
	R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

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Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?
	R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast
	R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
	R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
	R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

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What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
	local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
	locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
	logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
	logical address used to identify the DCE

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What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
	ISDN circuit
	limited access circuit
	switched parallel circuit
	virtual circuit

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Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
	ARP
	RARP
	Proxy ARP
	Inverse ARP
	LMI status messages
	ICMP

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Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
	110
	115
	220
	225

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Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?
	Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
	Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
	Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
	Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.

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Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?
	It helps to conserve IP addresses.
	It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
	It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
	It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
	Split horizon must be disabled.
	The LMI type must be specified.
	Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
	The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
	The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
	The local DLCI number is 401.
	Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
	This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
	Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

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Take Assessment - EWAN Chapter 3 - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)


	Top of Form	Time Remaining: Bottom of Form

Top of Form

Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
	The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
	The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
	The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
	The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

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Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
	It is currently not transmitting data.
	It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
	It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
	It is experiencing congestion.

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What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
	To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword.
	Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay nodes.
	Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
	To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

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Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
	Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point subinterfaces will consume.
	Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
	Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
	Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

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Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
	one multipoint subinterface
	two point-to-point subinterfaces
	with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
	one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

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Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?
	The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
	The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
	The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
	The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.

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Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)
	puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
	drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
	reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
	re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
	sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
	sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

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Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
	Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
	Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
	Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
	Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional hardware for leased service.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
	The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
	The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
	DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
	Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
	Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.

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Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
	LMI updates are not being received properly.
	The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
	Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
	The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

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Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
	The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
	The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
	The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
	The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
	The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

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What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
	Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
	It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
	FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
	The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
	The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

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CCNA4 Module 4 Exam chapter 4 Network Security (100%)

2008-11-10T20:01:00.007-08:00

>>>DOWNLOAD<<<

CCNA4 v 4.0 Exam chapter 4 Network Security

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

	Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
	Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
	Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
	Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
	Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

	Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
	Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
	Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
	A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
	Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

	reconnaissance
	access
	DoS
	worm
	virus
	Trojan horse

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

	DoS
	DDoS
	virus
	access
	reconnaissance

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

	The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
	Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
	Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
	Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
	Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

	securing
	monitoring
	testing
	improvement
	reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

	provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
	describe how the firewall must be configured
	document the resources to be protected
	identify the security objectives of the organization
	identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

	It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
	It communicates consensus and defines roles.
	It is developed by end users.
	It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
	It defines how to handle security incidents.
	It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

	By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
	DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
	Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
	The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
	The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

	It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
	It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
	It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
	It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
	It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

	The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
	The authentication method is not configured correctly.
	The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
	The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

	The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
	The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
	The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
	The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
	The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

	The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
	The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
	The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
	The TFTP server software has not been started.
	There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

	Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
	Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
	Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
	Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
	Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

	ROM monitor
	boot ROM
	Cisco IOS
	direct connection through the console port
	network connection through the Ethernet port
	network connection through the serial port

16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

	The password is sent in plain text.
	A Telnet session is established with R1.
	The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
	The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

	SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
	SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
	SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
	SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

	Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
	Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
	Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
	Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

	Schedule antivirus scans.
	Schedule antispyware scans .
	Schedule training for all users.
	Schedule operating systems updates.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

	SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
	SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
	SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
	SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as "fix it" to apply the suggested security changes.

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?

	to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
	to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
	to enable SSH encryption of traffic
	to create an IPsec tunnel

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

	The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
	The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
	The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
	The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

CCNA Implementation SIM

2008-11-10T20:01:00.006-08:00

(Updated from real CCNA exam on 10-20-2008)

This topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch. Complete the topology.

Drag the appropriate device icons to the labeled Device
Drag the appropriate connections to the locations labeled Connections.
Drag the appropriate IP addresses to the locations labeled IP address

(Hint: use the given host addresses and Main router information)
To remove a device or connection, drag it away from the topology.

Use information gathered from the Main router to complete the configuration of any additional routers. No passwords are required to access the Main router. The config terminal command has been disabled for the HQ router. The router does not require any configuration.

Configure each additional router with the following:

Configure the interfaces with the correct IP address and enable the interfaces.
Set the password to allow console access to consolepw
Set the password to allow telnet access to telnetpw
Set the password to allow privilege mode access to privpw

Note: Because routes are not being added to the configurations, you will not be able to ping through the internetwork.
All devices have cable autosensing capabilities disabled.
All hosts are PC's

Answer and explanation:

Specify appropriate devices and drag them on the "Device" boxes

For the device at the bottom-right box, we notice that it has 2 interfaces Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 -> it is a switch

The question stated that this topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch -> two other devices are routers

Place them on appropriate locations as following:

(Host D and host E will be automatically added after placing two routers. Click on them to access neighboring routers)

Specify appropriate connections between these devices:

+ The router on the left is connected with the Main router through FastEthernet interfaces: use a crossover cable
+ The router on the right is connected with the Main router through Serial interfaces: use a serial cable
+ The router on the right and the Switch: use a straight-through cable
+ The router on the left and the computer: use a crossover cable

Assign appropriate IP addresses for interfaces:

From Main router, use show running-config command:

(Notice that you may see different IP addresses in the real CCNA exam, the ones shown above are just used for demonstration)

From the output we learned that the ip address of Fa0/0 interface of the Main router is 192.168.152.178/28. This address belongs to a subnetwork which has:

Increment: 16 (/28 = 255.255.255.240 or 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 0000)
Network address: 192.168.152.176 (because 176 = 16 * 11 and 176 < 178)
Broadcast address: 192.168.152.191 (because 191 = 176 + 16 - 1)

And we can pick up an ip address from the list that belongs to this subnetwork: 192.168.152.190 and assign it to the Fa0/0 interface the router on the left

Use the same method for interface Serial0/0 with an ip address of 192.168.152.172

Increment: 16
Network address: 192.168.152.160 (because 160 = 16 * 10 and 160 < 172)
Broadcast address: 192.168.152.175 (because 176 = 160 + 16 - 1)

-> and we choose 192.168.152.174 for Serial0/0 interface of the router on the right

Interface Fa0/1 of the router on the left

IP (of the computer on the left) : 192.168.152.129/28

Increment: 16
Network address: 192.168.152.128 (because 128 = 16 * 8 and 128 < 129)
Broadcast address: 192.168.152.143 (because 143 = 128 + 16 - 1)

-> we choose 192.168.152.142 from the list

Interface Fa0/0 of the router on the right

IP (of the computer on the left) : 192.168.152.225/28

Increment: 16
Network address: 192.168.152.224 (because 224 = 16 * 14 and 224 < 225)
Broadcast address: 192.168.152.239 (because 239 = 224 + 16 - 1)

-> we choose 192.168.152.238 from the list

Let's have a look at the picture below to summarize

Configure two routers on the left and right with these commands:

Router1 = router on the left

Assign appropriate IP addresses to Fa0/0 & Fa0/1 interfaces:

Router1>enable
Router1#configure terminal
Router1(config)#interface fa0/0
Router1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.190 255.255.255.240
Router1(config-if)#no shutdown

Router1(config)#interface fa0/1
Router1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.142 255.255.255.240
Router1(config-if)#no shutdown

Set passwords (configure on two routers)

+ Console password:

Router1(config-if)#exit
Router1(config)#line console 0
Router1(config-line)#password consolepw
Router1(config-line)#login
Router1(config-line)#exit

+ Telnet password:

Router1(config)#line vty 0 4
Router1(config-line)#password telnetpw
Router1(config-line)#login
Router1(config-line)#exit

+ Privilege mode password:

Router1(config)#enable password privpw

Save the configuration:

Router1(config)#exit
Router1#copy running-config startup-config

Configure IP addresses of Router2 (router on the right)

Router2>enable
Router2#configure terminal
Router2(config)#interface fa0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.238 255.255.255.240
Router2(config-if)#no shutdown

Router2(config-if)#interface serial0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.174 255.255.255.240
Router2(config-if)#no shutdown

and set console, telnet and privilege mode passwords for Router2 as we did for Router1, remember to save the configuration when you finished

CCNALabGuide

2008-11-10T20:01:00.005-08:00

Download

CCNALabguide (Vietnamese)
CCNA LAB GUIDE
Version 4.0
(Cisco Certified Network Associate)
Author: Duong Van Toan
Hanoi -Vietnam - 12/10/2008

CCNA Lab Guide - Upload a Document to Scribd

Download

CCNA - Cisco Certified Network Associate

2008-11-10T20:01:00.004-08:00

A 280-hour curriculum, is the first step in a Cisco career certification path. Particular emphasis is given to using decision-making and problem-solving techniques in the application of science, mathematics, communication and social studies concepts to solve networking problems.

Students will learn how to install and configure Cisco switches and routers in multiprotocol networks using local- and wide-area networks (LANs and WANs), provide Level 1 troubleshooting service, and improve network performance and security. Additionally, instruction and training are provided in the proper care, maintenance, and use of networking software tools and equipment, as well as all local, state, and federal safety, building, and environmental codes and regulations.

Taught at secondary and post-secondary levels, CCNA features:

CCNA1 - Networking Basics
CCNA2 - Routers and Routing Basics
CCNA3 - Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing
CCNA4 - WAN Technologies

CCNA1 - Networking Basics Competencies

Upon completion of CCNA1, students have an understanding of networking basics including:

Computer hardware and software, electricity, networking terminology, and protocols
LANs and WANs, Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, Ethernet, and Internet Protocol (IP) addressing
Design and documentation of a basic network and structured cabling
Network-to-network communications

CCNA2 - Routers and Routing Basics Competencies

Upon completion of CCNA2, students have an understanding of routers and routing including:

Router user interfaces, components and configurations
Basics of IOS versions, naming and software backup
TCP/IP Protocol Suite and IP addressing and subnetting
Interior routing protocols?RIP, IGRP

www.ccna-4.blogspot.com

CCNA3 - Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing Competencies

Upon completion of CCNA3, students have an understanding of switching and intermediate routing including:

Switching and VLANs
Spanning-Tree Protocol
Routing and Routing Protocols
Access Control Lists (ACLs)
Network documentation, security and troubleshooting

CCNA4 - WAN Technologies Competencies

Upon completion of CCNA4, students have an understanding of WAN technology basics including:

WAN devices, encapsulation formats, and communication
PPP components, session establishment, and authentication
ISDN uses, services, and configuration
Frame relay technology and configuration Industry-recognized Certification

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) coursework prepares students for CCNA certification.

Download do Packet Tracer 5.0

2008-11-10T20:01:00.003-08:00

Download do Packet Tracer 5.0

Download do Packet Tracer 5.0

ownload Packet Tracer 5:
4shared:
PacketTracer5_setup.exe

Version Packet Tracer 4.1:
Post de Fevereiro

Tutoriais do Packet Tracer - Videos em Flash

Free Router Simulators (copy from 9tut)

f you are going to take a networking exam like CCNA, CCNP... it is better to practice with real routers. But when the budget is not big enough or you can only access to hardware in your school then router simulator softwares are the best things you can get for free. The followings are a number of free and popular router simulators you can download and practice with:

Packet Tracer - Packet Tracer 5.0 is the latest version of Cisco Networking Academy’s comprehensive networking technology teaching and learning software. Innovative features of Packet Tracer 5.0, including powerful simulation, visualization, authoring, assessment, and collaboration capabilities, will help students and teachers collaborate, solve problems, and learn concepts in an engaging and dynamic social environment. Moreover, it's totally free! You can download this software but you need to register first or you can find a mirror download with google (with keyword "download packet tracer")

Screen shots:

SemSim - The free trial version (2.3MB) offers some CCNA exam router simulation labs & 20 flash cards

Screen shots:

Boson NetSim - Boson offers three certification-focused products, NetSim for CCENT 7.0, NetSim for CCNA 7.0 and NetSim for CCNP 7.0. The NetSim for CCNA 7.0 product contains CCNA-specific lab exercises that cover the skill set you will need to prepare for your CCNA exam. The demo version (21.58MB) is a good choice to get started.

Screen shots:

CertExams offers advanced network simulators including router / switch / terminal simulator. The simulators help in preparing for networking exams such as ccna or jncia. It would also be very helpful for those who want to get started with configuring Cisco or Juniper routers in a simulated environment. The demo version (6.95MB) is limited to:

- Six lab exercises

- Router simulator is limited to User EXEC, Previleged EXEC, and Global Configuration mode commands.

Screenshots:

RouterSim's CCNA Network Visualizer - You can design, build and configure your own network. The demo version is 44.49MB. It is ideal for:

- Anyone studying for the Cisco® CCNA™ 640-802 exam

- Deployment over a LAN network

- Distance education and deployment on a Citrix server or Microsoft Terminal Services

- Corporate trainers and employees

- Students at colleges, universities, and technical institutes

Screen shots:

CCNA 3 Gradebook

2008-11-10T20:01:00.002-08:00

ccna-4.blogspot.com Click to image to view full size

www.ccna-4.blogspot.com

CCNA 2

2008-11-10T20:01:00.001-08:00

CCNA 3 No answer with images

2008-11-09T19:54:00.029-08:00

http://www.mediafire.com/?c7vda6inozo

640 802 CCNA Recommend Readings

2008-11-09T19:54:00.028-08:00

Contain in this file are the best CCNA 640-802 Recommended reading material
CCENT/CCNA ICND1 Official Exam Certification Guide
CCENT/CCNA ICND2 Official Exam Certification Guide
Practical Cisco Network
Cisco CCNA Study Guide 640-802
CCNA Portable Command Guide
640-802 CCNA ICND Official Exam Certification Guide, 2nd Edition
CCNA Ebooks
CCNA IP ROUTING FUNDAMENTALS
CCNA IP ROUTING FUNDAMENTALS

DOWNLOAD

Cisco Press ICND2 Feb 2008

2008-11-09T19:54:00.027-08:00

Contents at a Glance
Foreword xviii
Introduction xix
Chapter 1 Review of Cisco IOS for Routers and Switches 3
Chapter 2 Medium-Sized Switched Network Construction 13
Chapter 3 Medium-Sized Routed Network Construction 97
Chapter 4 Single-Area OSPF Implementation 139
Chapter 5 Implementing EIGRP 171
Chapter 6 Managing Traffic with Access Control Lists 205
Chapter 7 Managing Address Spaces with NAT and IPv6 249
Chapter 8 Extending the Network into the WAN 297
Appendix Answers to Chapter Review Questions 361
Index 368

Download Cisco Press ICND2 Feb 2008 part1
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CCNA Security Official Exam Certification Guide 2008

2008-11-09T19:54:00.026-08:00

CCNA Quick Reference Sheets (Digital Short Cut)CCNA Quick Reference Sheets (Digital Short Cut)

2008-11-09T19:54:00.025-08:00

Eric Rivard, Jim Doherty
ISBN-10: 1-58705-460-4
ISBN-13: 978-1-58705-460-0

As a final exam preparation tool, the CCNA Quick Reference Sheets provide a concise review of all objectives on the new CCNA exam (640-802). This digital Short Cut provides you with detailed, graphic-based information, highlighting only the key topics in cram-style format.

With this document as your guide, you will review topics on router and switch configuration and troubleshooting, wireless LAN (WLAN), security, IPv6, access control lists (ACL), NAT, Routing Information Protocol (RIP), OSPF, EIGRP configuration and troubleshooting, Frame Relay, and VPNs. These fact-filled Quick Reference Sheets allow you to get important information at a glance, helping you to focus your study on areas of weakness and to enhance memory retention of essential exam concepts.

Download Cisco Press CCNA Quick Reference Sheets 2007 part1
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CCNA Exploration LAN Switching and Wireless (power point)

2008-11-09T19:54:00.024-08:00

Cisco Press ICND1 2nd Edition Jan 2008

2008-11-09T19:54:00.023-08:00

Contents at a Glance
Foreword xxii
Introduction xxiii
Chapter 1 Building a Simple Network 3
Chapter 2 Ethernet LANs 139
Chapter 3 Wireless LANs 207
Chapter 4 LAN Connections 237
Chapter 5 WAN Connections 345
Chapter 6 Network Environment Management 425
Appendix Answers to Chapter Review Questions 465
Index 480

Download Cisco Press ICND1 2nd Edition Jan 2008 part1
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Sybex CCNA Study Guide 6th Edition 640-802

2008-11-09T19:54:00.022-08:00

Completely Revised for the New 2007 Version of the CCNA Exam (#640-802)

Cisco networking authority Todd Lammle has completely updated this new edition to cover all of the exam objectives for the latest version of the CCNA exam. Todd’s straightforward style provides lively examples, easy-to-understand analogies, and real-world scenarios that will not only help you prepare for the exam, but also give you a solid foundation as a Cisco networking professional.

Packed with updated topics that have been added to the 2007 version of the CCNA exam, this updated study guide features expanded coverage of key topic areas plus new material on switching, network address translation, and OSPF. Inside, find the complete instruction you need, including:

* Full coverage of all exam objectives in a systematic approach, so you can be confident you’re getting the instruction you need for the exam
* Practical hands-on exercises and labs to reinforce critical skills,
* Real-world scenarios that put what you’ve learned in the context of actual job roles
* Challenging review questions in each chapter to prepare you for exam day
* Exam Essentials, a key feature in each chapter that identifies critical areas you must become proficient in before taking the exam

Download Sybex CCNA Study Guide 6th Edition 640-802 part1
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CCNA 4 - Module 2 Exam Answers

2008-11-09T19:54:00.019-08:00

1
Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)

uses only PVCs

*** is useful for video transfers

*** has data rates beyond 155 Mbps

cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead

mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection

2
Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer? (Choose two.)

*** Each packet carries an identifier.

Each packet carries full addressing information.

Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.

*** Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.

The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous copper circuit.

3
A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?

ATM

*** X.25

Frame Relay

Leased lines

4
Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?

ISDN

modem

*** router

CSU/DSU

5
A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?

ATM

*** ISDN BRI

X.25

analog dialup

6
Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a WAN technology?

to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link

to determine the WAN topology

*** to determine the requirements for latency and jitter

to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

7
On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?

IP

PPP

*** HDLC

SLIP

HSSI

CSU

8
A company only requires a WAN connection to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. They estimate they will never need a connection faster than 56 kbps. Which type of connection is best for this company?

ATM

ISDN

*** analog dialup

T1 Leased Line

9
Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)

DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.

DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.

*** DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.

*** DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.

*** For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).

DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong security.

10
Which of the following are disadvantages of circuit-switched networks? (Choose two.)

Data is subject to unpredictable delays while it waits for other subscribers to transmit data.

*** The connection capacity is used inefficiently due to irregular traffic bursts.

Data delivery is less reliable because only connectionless delivery methods are used.

*** Circuit-switched networks are more expensive for data traffic.

Circuit-switched networks are less expensive for 24/7 data traffic.

11
Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design?

to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link

*** to determine the WAN topology

to determine the requirements for latency and jitter

to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

12
Which of the following is true of WANs?

Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency and jitter than dedicated lines.

ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.

*** The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and less reliability the network will experience.

WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.

13
A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20 offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation?

a mesh network of all branch WANs

a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces

a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs

*** a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN

14
Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?

Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.

Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.

*** WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.

WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.

15
A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?

X.25

DSL

*** ISDN

cable modem

56 kbps

16
Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN service provider?

CPE

CO

*** local loop

DCE

DTE

17
Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for large businesses?

BRI

*** PRI

DLCI

PSTN

POTS

CCNA 4 - Module 3 Exam Answers

2008-11-09T19:54:00.018-08:00

How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?

split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol

identified the protocol in the FCS field

compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol

*** added a type field to identify the protocol

A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?

*** show controllers

show processes

show run

show status

A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?

Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway

Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress

Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress

*** Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress

Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway

Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress

Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?

MD5

CHAP

*** PAP

NCP

How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)

*** uses a one-way hash function

authentication occurs more rapidly

*** challenges are unique

the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge

the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge

Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?

ppp link 50

ppp link quality 60

ppp percentage 80

*** ppp quality 90

Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established?

1

*** 2

3

4

Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.)

It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.

*** Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.

*** Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.

TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.

Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)

*** HDLC provides flow and error control.

Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.

*** HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.

HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.

*** Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.

A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:

Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)

What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)

interface missing the no shutdown command

clockrate command missing

*** CSU/DSU failed

*** interface shutdown due to high error rate

cable missing

When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command:

*** Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.

What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)

Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down

Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up

Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down

The interface is neither DCE or DTE.

*** The interface hardware may be faulty.

*** The cabling may be improperly connected.

ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links?

Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2

Router(config-if)# ip variance

Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2

*** Router(config-if)# ppp multilink

Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)

PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.

PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.

*** PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.

*** PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.

PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.

*** PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)

*** testing the quality of the link

routing packets between devices

assigning individual station addresses

configuring network layer protocols

*** negotiating authentication options

Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?

configure each host with a PPP address

configure authentication between the two routers

*** send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters

send hostname and password information between the two routers

Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?

to establish a PPP session

to provide error checking on a WAN link

*** to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links

to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router

Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)

*** exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity

sends authentication password to verify identity

*** prevents transmission of login information in plain text

*** disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails

initiates a two-way handshake

Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?

show ppp traffic

show lcp traffic

*** debug ppp negotiation

debug ppp authentication

What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)

A two-way handshake is occuring.

*** The LCPs were already negotiated.

*** The router can begin NCP negotiations.

The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.

*** The debug ppp authentication command was executed.

Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?

*** Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.

Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.

More than one authentication method can be used.

More than one compression protocol can be configured.

CCNA 4 - Final Exam Answers (1)

2008-11-09T19:54:00.017-08:00

Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)

*** improper placement of enterprise level servers

*** addition of hosts to a physical segment

replacement of hubs with workgroup switches

*** increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications

www.ccna-4.blogspot.com

creation of new collision domains without first adding network hosts

migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)

*** a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices

a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices

*** a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet

a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer

*** a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
Which of the following eliminates switching loops?

hold-down timers

poison reverse

*** spanning tree protocol

time to live

split horizon protocol

The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)

CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.

*** The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.

The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.

SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.

SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.

*** SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols

A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

*** Router(config)# line vty 0 4
*** Router(config-line)# login
*** Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# enable secret cisco

Router(config)# enable cisco
Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?

low processor overhead

poison reverse

routing loops

split horizon

*** shortest-path first calculations

A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?

The configuration register is set for 0x2100.

The configuration register is set for 0x2101.

The configuration register is set for 0x2102.

*** The configuration register is set for 0x2142.

Boot system commands are not configured.

Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
Nederst på formularen
Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)

*** show ip interface

show ip route

show processes

*** show running-config

show cdp neighbor

*** show access-lists
Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

destination address and wildcard mask

*** source address and wildcard mask

subnet mask and wildcard mask

access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699

*** access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999

Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)

most

*** host

all

*** any

some

sum

Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).

3 collision domains

*** 3 broadcast domains

5 broadcast domains

*** 9 collision domains

10 collision domains

13 collision domains

Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?

192.168.16.63/27

192.168.16.158/27

192.168.16.192/27

192.168.16.113/30

192.168.16.145/30

*** 192.168.16.193/30

What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

*** prevents Layer 2 loops

prevents routing loops on a router

creates smaller collision domains

creates smaller broadcast domains

allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?

activates the OSPF neighboring process

*** ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process

provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process

streamlines and speeds up the convergence process
Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?

Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.

*** Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.

Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.

It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?

Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1

Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1

Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

*** Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
*** Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)

EIGRP

OSPF

*** RIP v1

RIP v2

*** IGRP

Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex

*** SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
*** SW2(config-if)# duplex full

SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?

EIGRP does not support VLSM.

The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.

The default bandwidth was used on the routers.

*** An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?

Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.

Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.

*** Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully

Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)

local router

local Frame Relay switch

*** remote router

*** remote Frame Relay switch

R3 has the following configuration:

R3# show running-config
--some output text omitted--
interface serial0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?

*** No clock rate assigned.

There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.

An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.

The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword
Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)

*** The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.

The LMI type must always be manually configured.

The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.

The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.

*** The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.

*** The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE

Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?

*** Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.

The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.

A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.

The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured
Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)

The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.

The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.

*** The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.

*** The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.

Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.

It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR
Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?

show interface bri0/0

show isdn active

debug isdn q921

*** debug isdn q931

debug ppp negotiation

debug ppp authentication
Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)

*** PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.

PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.

PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

*** PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.

*** PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection

A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

establishes identities with a two-way handshake

*** uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities

control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events

*** transmits login information in encrypted format

*** uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks

makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?

They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.

They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.

They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.

*** They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link

Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)

192.168.14.8

*** 192.168.14.16

192.168.14.24

*** 192.168.14.32

192.168.14.148

*** 192.168.14.208

A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?

*** 1) fast forward
*** 2) fragment free
*** 3) store-and-forward

1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward

1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward

1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free
Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?

*** banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *

message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.

banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *

hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
Øverst på formularen
A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config)# router ospf

*** RouterA(config)# router ospf 1

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

*** RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0

*** router ospf 1
*** network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
*** network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?

TCP

*** RIP

CSMA/CD

Ethernet
Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?

a router with a serial interface

a router with an S/T interface

*** a router with a U interface

an ISDN terminal adapter
The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)

The clock rate is not set on the DTE.

An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.

A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.

*** The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.

*** Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device

Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)

*** data transport reliability

best path determination

*** establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits

encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses

best-effort datagram delivery

Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)

*** A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.

192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.

192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.

This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.

*** This command is used to define a static route

Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)

*** SMTP

*** FTP

SNMP

*** HTTP

TFTP

DHCP

Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)

*** BECN

DLCI

*** DE

*** FECN

LMI

Inverse ARP

Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?

Router# show ip interfaces brief

*** Router# show ip route

Router# show cdp neighbors

Router# show running-config

Router# show protocols

When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?

router table

*** topology table

DUAL table

CAM table

ARP table

Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)

*** ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192

ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224

summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31

ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63

*** serial interface on router A

serial interface on router B

A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?

the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0

the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address

*** the loopback with the highest IP address configured

the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces

the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?

172.0.0.0

172.16.134.0

*** 172.16.134.32

172.16.134.48

172.16.134.47

172.16.134.63

Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)

*** Router# show ip protocols

Router# show version

Router# show interfaces

Router# show ip updates

*** Router# show ip route

When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?

IP addresses

subnet masks

*** port numbers

routed protocols

routing protocols

interfaces
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

This is a useable host address.

This is a broadcast address.

*** This is a network address.

This is not a valid address

The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?

200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192

*** 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224

200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224

200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240

CCNA 4 - Final Exam Answers (2)

2008-11-09T19:54:00.016-08:00

1
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

*** A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

A modem terminates a digital local loop.

A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

*** A modem terminates an analog local loop.

*** A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

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2
What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?

CIR

DE

*** DLCI

ISDN

FRAD

PVC

3

The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?

The IP addresses must be on different subnets.

*** The usernames are misconfigured.

The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.

The clock rate must be 56000.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

4
The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)

*** There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.

There is no clock present on the serial interface.

The interface is shut down.

RARP is not functioning on the router.

*** The cable is disconnected.

5
Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)

*** The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).

*** The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.

The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.

*** The point is called the demarcation point.

The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.

The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

6
While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?

show interfaces serial 0/0

show version

*** show controllers serial 0/0

show protocols serial 0/0

show status serial 0/0

7

A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The DHCP server service is not enabled.

The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.

*** The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8
A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)

*** Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.

A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.

*** All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.

A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.

An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9
When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)

when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

*** when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP

when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

*** when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10

Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?

RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2

RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast

*** RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast

RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast

RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast

RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11
Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?

*** ITU-T Q.921

ITU-T Q.931

ITU-T I.430

ITU-T I.431

12
What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

*** create a full-mesh topology

disable Inverse ARP

*** use point-to-point subinterfaces

use multipoint subinterfaces

remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13

What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

*** defines which addresses are allowed into the router

defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14

A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

What should the administrator do to solve the problem?

Add a clock rate on RouterA.

Enable the serial interface on RouterB.

*** Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.

Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.

Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15
An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?

change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

remove the dialer list statement from the configuration

*** change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting

disable inverse ARP

16
Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?

1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made

1,2,3,4

1,3,2,4

2,3,1,4

2,1,3,4

*** 3,2,1,4

3,1,2,4

17
Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?

NAT with DHCP

Frame Relay

HDLC with encryption

HDLC with CHAP

PPP with PAP

*** PPP with CHAP

18
Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)

create subinterfaces

define the LMI type

*** set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch

set the interface DLCI

*** set the switch type

specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19
A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?

use PPP multilink

lower idle timer setting

use CHAP authentication

*** change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20
A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)

*** The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.

HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.

*** PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.

Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.

The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.

There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21

Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

*** The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.

The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.

*** The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.

The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.

The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22

The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?

The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.

The usernames are misconfigured.

The clock rate must be 56000.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

*** The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.

Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23
What causes a DDR call to be placed?

dial string

DLCI

idle time out

*** interesting traffic

PVC

24
Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?

Application Layer, Physical Layer

*** Data Link Layer, Physical Layer

Data Link Layer, Transport Layer

Physical Layer, Network Layer

25

A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?

The routers are configured for different encapsulations.

*** The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.

The circuit from WAN provider has failed.

Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.

The circuit is functioning properly.

26
A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)

*** Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.

Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.

Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.

Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.

*** Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27
When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)

*** Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.

Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.

Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.

The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.

*** The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

28

A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?

There is not a route to the remote router.

The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.

*** The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.

The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29
What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active

*** 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.

172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.

DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.

broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.

*** dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.

active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30
What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?

*** The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.

The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.

The DLCI is usable but has little activity.

The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

31
Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)

*** 192.168.146.0/22

172.10.25.0/16

*** 172.31.0.0/16

20.0.0.0/8

*** 10.172.92.8/29

32
After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)

PPP authentication is not properly configured.

*** No dialer map is configured.

The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.

*** No interesting traffic is defined.

No route is determined to the remote network.

*** A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33
Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?

frame-relay pvc multipoint

frame-relay pvc point-to-point

encapsulation frame-relay cisco

*** encapsulation frame-relay ietf

frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34
Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?

X.25

DSL

*** ISDN

cable modem

35
After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?

show dialer

show isdn status

*** show interfaces bri0/0:1

show interfaces serial0/0.1

36
A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?

Install and configure a PRI.

Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.

Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.

*** Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.

Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

*** Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38
Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)

circuit-switched

*** connection oriented

OSI Layer 3

*** packet-switched

reliable

39
Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?

authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols

authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment

network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication

network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment

*** link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols

link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

CCNA 4 - Final Exam Answers (3)

2008-11-09T19:54:00.015-08:00

1
A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?

routable translation

dynamic translation

static translation

*** port address translation

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2

The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

*** ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload

ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload

ip nat inside serial0

*** ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload

ip nat inside Raleigh overload

ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

3

The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?

static

dynamic

*** overload

private

public

4
Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)

*** 192.168.146.0/22

172.10.25.0/16

*** 172.31.0.0/16

20.0.0.0/8

*** 10.172.92.8/29

5

How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?

Both links will transmit data at the same rate.

1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.

*** Both links will transmit bits one by one.

The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

6
Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)

DHCP uses TCP.

DHCP uses UDP.

*** DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.

DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.

*** DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.

*** DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

7
Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?

Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5

Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5

Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5

*** Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5

Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8
The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?

Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access

Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access

ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access

*** ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

9

Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?

show ip dhcp server statistics

show ip dhcp binding

*** debug ip dhcp server events

debug ip dhcp binding

10
Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?

terminal adapter

modem

*** CSU/DSU

PBX switch

ISDN switch

Frame Relay Switch

11
Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)

Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.

*** Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.

Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.

*** A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.

Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.

*** Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

12
ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?

HDLC

IPCP

LAPB

*** LAPD

NCP

SS7

13
A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

X.25

DSL

*** ATM

ISDN BRI

ISDN PRI

14
Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?

DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.

DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.

DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.

*** DSL has limited geographical availability.

15
When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.

It provides for redundancy.

*** It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.

It is less expensive.

It provides faster connection time.

It provides less latency and jitter.

16
Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

DLCI

CO

*** DCE

DTE

PRI

BRI

17
Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)

*** Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.

A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.

Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.

A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.

A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.

*** A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

18
A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?

Nothing. The router is already suitable.

Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.

Purchase a U interface to install in the router.

*** Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)
Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?

determines the next-hop address for a packet

multiplexes signals from several sources

adapts information for use on a service provider's network

used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

20
Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

The frame contains an incorrect IP address.

*** An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.

There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.

Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.

*** The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.

21
Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)

*** modem

router

*** CSU/DSU

ISDN Switch

Frame Relay Switch

22
Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

*** CHAP

*** Stacker

IPCP

CDPCP

*** Multilink

23
Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?

*** username tampa password florida

username tampa florida

hostname tampa password florida

hostname tampa florida

24
Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)

*** sends unencrypted authentication passwords

performs a three-way handshake

*** allows repeated login attempts

uses the remote router hostname to verify identity

sends a random challenge throughout the session

25
Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)

to create firewalls on routers

*** to conserve IP addresses

to translate domain names into IP addresses

to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address

*** to hide internal addresses from external devices

26

An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)

*** The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.

The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.

The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.

The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.

The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.

*** The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

27
Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?

Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]

Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]

*** Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

28
What does the command debug isdn q921 display?

exchange of call setup and teardown messages

PAP and CHAP authentication traffic

*** Layer 2 messages on the D channel

protocol errors and statistics

Layer 2 messages on the B channel

29
When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)

the enable password on the remote device

the ip host configuration on the remote device

*** the security server database for the username and password of the remote device

the hostname and enable password on the local device

*** the local database for the username and password of the remote device

30
How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?

2

16

*** 23

24

30

128

31
Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)

*** Linux

Windows 98

Windows ME

*** Windows XP

*** Windows 2000

32

What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?

MAC address of the Orlando router

MAC address of the DC router

192.168.1.25

192.168.1.26

DLCI 100

*** DLCI 200

33
What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)

This is the first data frame sent by the router.

This is a management frame.

The encapsulation type is Cisco.

The encapsulation type is IETF.

*** The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.

The LMI type is Cisco.

34
Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)

Link Access Protocol - Data

*** High-Level Data Link Control

Logical Link Control

Serial Data Link Control

*** Point to Point protocol

Binary Synchronous Control protocol

35

An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?

110

115

220

*** 225

36
Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)

*** show frame-relay map

show frame-relay lmi

*** show frame-relay pvc

show frame-relay interface

show interfaces

show ip route

37
A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:

Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down

What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)

*** remote CSU/DSU failure

serial cable missing

interface shutdown

*** keepalives not being sent

*** clocking signal missing

38
A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)

The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.

The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.

*** The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.

*** A table of static mappings can be searched.

The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

39
Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)

A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.

*** Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.

The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.

LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.

*** Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

40

Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)

*** The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.

The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.

*** Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.

The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).

There is currently no congestion on the link.

41
Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)

*** exchange information about the status of virtual circuits

map DLCIs to network addresses

*** provide flow control

provide error notification

provide congestion notification

*** send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

42
Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)

PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.

PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.

*** PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.

*** PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.

PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.

*** PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

43
Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)

*** exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity

sends authentication password to verify identity

*** prevents transmission of login information in plain text

*** disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails

initiates a two-way handshake

44
Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

circuit-switched

*** packet-switched

frame-switched

dedicated-switched lines

lease-switched

45
How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

*** Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.

It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.

FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.

*** The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

46

Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.

A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.

*** DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.

*** The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.

A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

CCNA 4 - Voucher

2008-11-09T19:54:00.014-08:00

--------
THIS EXAM IS (80%)
--------

What is accomplished by segmenting a LAN with a bridge?

*increase large collision domains

reduce large collision domains

reduce small broadcast domains

increase small broadcast domains

2
How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
4
*5
8
10

3
What is a disadvantage of cut-through switching?

*no error checking

a decrease in error checking

decrease in number of collision domains

decrease in bandwidth

increased latency

4
Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)

*Packets are put into frames.

Data is packaged into a packet.

Data is segmented into segments.

Data is converted for Internet travel.

*An address is added to identify the directly connected device.

5
Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)

*twisted pair cable

T style connectors

*baseband transmission

10 gigabits per second data rate

*10 megabits per second data rate

decimal encoded data transmission

6
A LAN is to be added to an unused router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)

*Enter the command no shutdown.

A password must be set on the interface.

The interface DCE clock rate must be set.

The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.

*The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask.

The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.

7
Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)

Category 5 UTP *
Category 5e UTP *
Category 3 UTP *
coaxial cable
multi-mode fiber
single mode fiber

8
If 4 bits are borrowed from the host field of a Class C address to create subnets, what will the range of usable host addresses be in the last subnet?

.224 to .239

.225 to .239

.225 to .254

.241 to .254

.241 to .255

*.240 to .255

9
Which of the following describe how a device on a LAN builds a table of MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

by monitoring the traffic that occurs on the local network segment

*via FTP from the nearest router

*by sending a request to the nearest domain name server

by broadcasting an ARP request

10
Which of the following best describes how the Gigabit Ethernet, Media Access Control method views the link?

ring
shared bus
point-to-point *
star
extended star

11
What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?

PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process.

PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.

*PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.

PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

12
Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)

decimal number in first octet between 127-191

decimal number in first octect between 128-192

*decimal number in first octect between 128-191

first bit of binary IP address is 0

*first two bits of binary IP address are 10

first three bits of IP binary address are 110

13
An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the screen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:" Why did this dialog appear?

There was a POST failure.

The incorrect IOS loaded.

There was an error in the startup configuration file.

*The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.

14
What operations are performed during router initialization? (Choose three.)

*The IOS is loaded into RAM.

The generic bootstrap loader tests all interfaces.

All directly connected network devices are identified.

*A valid configuration file is loaded from NVRAM if specified by the configuration register.

*A question driven setup menu is presented if a valid configuration file cannot be loaded.

15
For a network manager planning the installation of a new network, which of the following will be needed to implement a typical 10BASE-T network installation? (Choose three.)

RJ-11
BNC connectors
RJ-48 patch cables
RJ-45 connectors *
Category 5 UTP cables *
hubs or switches *

16. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?

255.255.0.0

255.255.240.0

255.255.255.0

*255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224

17
A network administrator can establish a remote session to a host using the Router> telnet 192.168.1.1 command but is unsuccessful when using the Router> telnet Boston command to connect to the same interface. Which of the following could be the problem? (Choose two.)

*The ip host table on the router is not configured.

The command telnet Boston was issued from the wrong router prompt.

The routing table is missing.

*Domain name services are not available.

18
Which of the following network components would be considered Layer 1 devices? (Choose three.)

*hub

router

bridge

switch

*repeater

*transceiver

19
What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?

*100 meters

185 meters

300 meters

500 meters

20
What is the result of executing the erase startup-config command?

It deletes the active configuration file from RAM.

*It deletes the backup configuration file in NVRAM.

It deletes the saved configuration file from ROM.

It deletes the saved configuration file from the C: drive.

21
Which of the following imposes boundaries on broadcast traffic?

Bridge

Repeater

*Router

Transceiver

22
Which utility shows the route a packet takes to reach its destination?

netstat

ping

Telnet

*traceroute

23
Which device is considered a multi-port bridge?

hub

router

*switch

gateway

transceiver

repeater

24
What organization developed the TCP/IP reference model?

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
National Intstitute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
Department of the Navy (DoN)
Department of Defense (DoD) *
Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
Stanford University

25 Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.

By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

*If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.

Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

26
How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?

configure the route with a metric greater than the default value

configure the route and the router will activate it as needed

configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command

*configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value

27
Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

156

158

160

*162

164

166

28
*What happens on an Ethernet network after a collision occurs? (Choose three.)

A backoff algorithm is invoked and transmission is stopped.

Devices involved in the collision have a random period of time for priority retransmission of the damaged packet.

The devices involved in the collision release a token indicating the time each station may begin retransmitting.

*The devices involved in the collision do not have priority to transmit data.

*The devices with data to transmit return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

Transmit work will restart with the reissuance of all data.

29
Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host? (Choose two.)

Ethernet

*Token Ring

*FDDI

Frame Relay

ISDN

30
What is the length of a MAC address?

8 bits

8 bytes

24 bits

24 bytes

*48 bits

48 bytes

31 Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)

address resolution

end-to-end communication

*flow control

reliability of data delivery

path determination

*data representation

32
Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes RAM.

provides working storage

*stores a fully functional IOS image

stores the startup configuration file

initializes the code used in router startup

33
Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?

Router# show ip interfaces

Router# show ip connections

*Router# show ip route

Router# show ip networks

34
Which of the following statements describe distance vector routing updates? (Choose three.)

Topology changes are transmitted to all routers at once.

Routers send their entire routing tables in distance vector updates.

*Path cost metrics for each route are included in the updates.

Periodic updates are sent directly to every router in the network.

*Routing updates are sent periodically to adjacent routers.

*Routers send only the state of their own links in distance vector updates.

35
Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network is not available?

time exceeded

redirect

*destination unreachable

source quench

parameter problem

echo reply

36
How many total subnets are created by applying the subnet mask 255.255.252.0 to a Class B network?

4

6

*64

252

255

1024

37
Which of the following conditions will cause a router using holddown timers to ignore an update?

an update from a different router with a better metric

an update from a different router with a poorer metric

an update from the same router with a better metric

*an update from the same router with a poorer metric

38
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

type-of-service

identification

flags

*time-to-live

header checksum

39
Which of the following is a network type that is widely used in dialup networking?

shared media

point-to-point

extended shared media

*point-to-multipoint

40
When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?

1022

510

254

126

30

*6

41
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) operates at which OSI Layer?

physical layer

network layer

*data link layer

presentation layer

42
Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a router?

SNMP

*TFTP

UDP

TCP

43
Which of the following is a transport layer protocol of the TCP/IP model?

FTP

*UDP

IP

TFTP

44
Which of the following is created with switched full-duplex transmission?

more collision domains

fewer collision domains

*no collision domains

no increase in broadcast domains

more broadcast domains

45
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)

*75.32.75.15

205.16.35.11

*199.254.129.111

*129.130.17.143

135.22.55.93

105.33.62.213

46 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

dynamic

interior

*static

standard

47
What is used to resolve known IP addresses to unknown MAC addresses?

*ARP

DNS

DHCP

RARP

48
Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

session

*transport

network

data link

49
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)

permits network address duplication

*allows for address flexibility

*prevents address replication

provides broadcast containment

*adds low-level security

allows for more network hosts available

50
How many IP addresses can be assigned to host devices on each subnet of a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?

3

5

6

8

30

8190???? mayby that

51
After a Telnet session has been suspended, which actions will restart the session? (Choose two.)

pressing Enter to restart the most recent session

using the resume command followed by a session ID

*typing the session ID followed by pressing Enter

*using the resume command followed by the IP address

52
Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

*Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 5

Layer 6

53
Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?

*TCP

SMTP

UDP

SNMP

54
Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting a routing protocol to be implemented in an enterprise network? (Choose three.)

*bandwidth consumption

*router memory requirements

router location

spanning tree size

*router processor capability

flow control capability

55

A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.)

*The router will block the ping request message.

The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response.

Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B.

Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A.

*Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B.

Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.

56
Which mode will a router enter if it is unable to locate a valid startup configuration file during the boot process?

Boot mode

Config mode

Setup mode

Startup mode

57
Which protocol of the TCP/IP model internet layer provides connectionless, best-effort-delivery of datagrams?

ARP

ICMP

IP

RARP

*TCP

DNS

58
Which of the following does a router use to make a forwarding decision?

*destination IP address

MAC address

source IP address

encapsulation address

default gateway

59
Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.

provides working storage

*stores a fully functional IOS image

stores the startup configuration file

initializes the code that is used to boot the router

60
Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?

A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.

A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.

*Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.

There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

CCNA VTP SIM Question

2008-11-09T19:54:00.013-08:00

(Updated from lastest CCNA exam on 09-10-2008)

Question:

This task requires you to use the CLI of Sw-AC3 to answer five multiple-choice questions. This does not require any configuration.
To answer the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes in the right panel.
There are five multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all five questions before leaving this item.

Notice: All the images in this VTP LAB are used for demonstration only, you will see slightly different images in the real CCNA exam

Question 1:

What interface did Sw-AC3 associate with source MAC address 0010.5a0c.ffba ?

a) Fa0/1
b) Fa0/3
c) Fa0/6
d) Fa0/8
e) Fa0/9
f) Fa0/12

Answer: Fa 0/8

Explanation: to find out which interface associated with a given MAC address, use the show mac-address-table command. It shows the learned MAC addresses and their associated interfaces. After entering this command, you will see a MAC address table like this:

From this table we can figure out that the MAC address 0010.5a0c.ffba is associated with interface Fa0/8

Question 2:

What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating has trunks (choose two)?

a) Fa0/1
b) Fa0/3
c) Fa0/4
d) Fa0/6
e) Fa0/9
f) Fa0/12

Answer: Fa0/9 and Fa0/12

Explanation: Use the show interface trunk command to determine the trunking status of a link and VLAN status. This command lists port, its mode, encapsulation and whether it is trunking. The image below shows how it works:

(This image is used for demonstration only)

Question 3:

What kind of router is VLAN-R1?

a) 1720
b) 1841
c) 2611
d) 2620

Answer: 2611

Explanation: VLAN-R1 is the router directly connected to Sw-Ac3 switch, so we can use the show cdp neighbors command to see:

1. Neighbor Device ID : The name of the neighbor device;
2. Local Interface : The interface to which this neighbor is heard
3. Capability: Capability of this neighboring device - R for router, S for switch, H for Host etc.
4. Platform: Which type of device the neighbor is
5. Port ID: The interface of the remote neighbor you receive CDP information
6. Holdtime: Decremental hold time in seconds

Sample output of show cdp neighbors command:

One thing I want to notice you is "Local Intrfce" in the image above refers to the local interface on the device you are running the "show cdp neighbors" command

Question 4: Which switch is the root bridge for VLAN 1?

Answer: Sw-DS1

Explanation: First we use the show spanning-tree vlan 1 to view the spanning-tree information of VLAN 1

Notice that if you see all of the interface roles are Desg (designated) then you can confirm Sw-Ac3 switch is the root bridge for this VLAN (VLAN 1).

If you see there is at least one Root port in the interface roles then you can confirm Sw-Ac3 is not the root bridge because root bridge does not have root port. In this case, we notice that the root port on Sw-Ac3 switch is FastEthernet0/12, so we have to figure out which switch is associated with this port -> it is the root bridge. You can verify it with the show cdp neighbors command:

The "Local Intrfce" column refers to the interface on the switch running "show cdp neighbors" command. In this case, Sw-DS1 is associated with interface FastEthernet0/12 -> Sw-DS1 is the root bridge

Question 5: What address should be configured as the default-gateway for the host connected to interface fa 0/4 of SW-Ac3?

Answer: 192.168.44.254

Explanation:

First we have to identify which VLAN interface Fa0/4 belongs to by the show vlan command

From the exhibit we know that VLAN 44 is configured on router using sub-interface Fa0/0.44 with IP address 192.168.44.254/24

Therefore the default gateway of the host should be 192.168.44.254

Question 6: From which switch did Sw-Ac3 receive VLAN information ?

Answer: Sw-AC2

Explanation: to view the VTP configuration information, use the show vtp status command

So we knew Sw-Ac3 received VLAN information from 163.5.8.3 (notice:the IP address may be different). Finally we use the show cdp neighbors detail to find out who 163.5.8.3 is:

There are still some questions for the VTP SIM, I will update them soon!

? Download PT_v50_Instructor_Training_Materials.zip

2008-11-09T19:54:00.012-08:00

PT_5.zip

CCNA 3:Module 7

2008-11-09T19:54:00.011-08:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)
802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

2. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)
802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.

3. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?
set up WEP on the access point only
set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open
set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open

4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel

5. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)
MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.
Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.
Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.
Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.
Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

6. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?
This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.
The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.
Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.
Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.

7. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)
gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
built-in Ethernet switch
network management station
VTP server
wireless access point
VPN concentrator

8. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?
CSMA/CD
token passing
CSMA/CA
polling

9. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

10. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n

11. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

12. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
site survey
risk assessment
scalability design
network protocol analysis

13. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?
authentication
SSID broadcasting
MAC address filtering
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

14. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?
beacon
password
probe request
association request

15. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?
to keep users segregated on separate subnets
to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized
to keep signals from interfering with each other
to keep traffic secure

16. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?
converts clear text data before transmission
indicates which channel the data should flow on
determines that the correct host is utilizing the network
allows the host to choose which channel to use

17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?
Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.
Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.

18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?
Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.
Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.
Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.
Disable SSID broadcasts.

19. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
dynamically assigns an IP address to the host
provides local DHCP services
converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
provides a gateway for connecting to other networks

20. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?
bandwidth saturation
privacy concerns
media contention
device interoperability

21. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?
association response
beacon
key
probe request

CCNA 3:Module 6

2008-11-09T19:54:00.010-08:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
This design will not scale easily.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

3. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?
R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.
S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.
Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.
Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.
Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

6. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.
When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.
When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

7. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth
more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

8. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
one trunked link per VLAN
a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?
R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.
R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.
Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.
The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?
PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.
The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.
An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.
The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?
PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.
The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.
The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.
The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

13. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?
Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.
Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.
Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.
Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

14. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)
The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.
The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.
The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.
Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?
Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.
Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
Port 0/4 is not active.
Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.
Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

18. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

19. in which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?
a network with more than 100 subnetworks
a network with a limited number of VLANs
a network with experienced support personnel
a network using a router with one LAN interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?
The router interface is shut down.
The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.
All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.
The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.
The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

CCNA 3:Module 5

2008-11-09T19:54:00.009-08:00

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3.
Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
the max-age timer
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
Learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 have a cost of 38.
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
STP is disabled on this switch.
The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
Shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
alternate
backup
Designated
root

20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
bridge priority
MAC address
protocol
VLAN ID

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