Đây là các đề FINAL và SKILL
Wednesday, 1 October 2008
CCNA 2 - Module 1
CCNA 2 - Module 1
If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.
Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode
Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over
Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded
Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4
From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory
A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config
What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination address
CCNA 2 - Module 2
CCNA 2 - Module 2
Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface
Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.
A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0
What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21
Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.
What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device
A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface
Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address
Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route
What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.
The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25
Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
CCNA 2 - Module 3
CCNA 2 - Module 3
Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip route
Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.
Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design
What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
shortest-path first calculations
Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing
The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".
An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
The administrative distance of this route is 1.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
The cost for this link has a value of 129.
A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
OSPF can be used between the routers.
Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
3
A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.CCNA 2 - Module 5
CCNA 2 - Module 5
Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
3
Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
155 seconds
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm
Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0
What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
30
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.
Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.
Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.
Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# no router rip
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]
Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip
Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.0.0.0/8
Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.
What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only the gateway router
CCNA 2 - Module 6
CCNA 2 - Module 6
What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
192.168.0.0/21
Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
32-bit address
subnet mask
Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
the shortage of IP addresses
What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
24
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
CIDR
A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24
A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA
In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
84
A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/27
An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.224/28
Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP
Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
29
Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
192.168.2.130/25
Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
192.168.4.15/29
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
Because RIPv2 does not support VLSM, the subnet masks will not be allowed.
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.
What is a supernet?
a summarization of classful addresses
CCNA 2 - Module 7
CCNA 2 - Module 7
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20
Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
Router2(config-router)# version 2
What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.
How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in
this network?
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
Why does the router respond with an error?
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.
What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
15 hops
What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.
A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.
A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# defaultinformation
originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
propagates the default route to all routers in the network
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
Configure RIPv2 on routers.
What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
subnet mask
Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.
RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.
CCNA 2 - Module 8
CCNA 2 - Module 8
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
All of the routes listed are network routes.
Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
172.16.0.0/16
The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
What type of route is this?
a level 1 ultimate network route
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
do nothing, ip classless is on by default
Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
use the default route
Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
7
Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
send packet out Serial 0/0/1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
There is at least one parent and one child route
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
forward out interface Serial0/0/1
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ip classless
A router has the following entries in its routing table:
S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1
The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
the RIP route
What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.
Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched
first and why?
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
255.255.255.0
Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
RIPv2
A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
administrative distance
CCNA 2 - Module 9
CCNA 2 - Module 9
On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
topology table
Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor
Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
the route is in a stable state
In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
routing
topology
What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
the routing protocol
the feasible distance of the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
routes learned from other routing protocols
EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.
Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
A,B,E
By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
delay
bandwidth
Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
autonomous system
Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.
In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise
The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.
What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
170
Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1CCNA 2 - Module 10
CCNA 2 - Module 10
Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.
What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol
What is the final step in the link state routing process?
SPF computes best path to each destination network
What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
all routers in the area have identical link state databases
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
cost of the link
What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network
What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
updates triggered by network changes
Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
Dijkstra
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost
Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
link-state database
Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
OSPF
When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
when a link goes up or down
Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
OSPF
What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
floods the LSP to neighbors
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
B and CCCNA 2 - Module 11
CCNA 2 - Module 11
Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?
an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
1786
What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
area id
hello interval
network type
What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
designated router
backup designated router
What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
bandwidth
A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.
Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.
Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5
Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
6
What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
110
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.
What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
1787
What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1
Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
A FULL adjacency is formed.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
DR for network 192.168.1.200
BDR for network 192.168.1.204
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.
Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.
Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
hello packetsCCNA1 SKILL
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CCNA 1 - Module 2
CCNA 1 - Module 2
1
Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session
2
What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3
During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.
4
What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**
5
Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link**
network
transport
6
Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow
7
What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
8
What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9
Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**
10
What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices
11
Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
**encapsulation
12
What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
**a layer specific encapsulation
13
Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
**an end device
an intermediate device
a media device
14
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
**E, F, H, I, J
15
Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
**intermediary
16
Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
**A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
**The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
**A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN
18
What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
**detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets
19
Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
**retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
20
What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21
Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
**define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors
CCNA 1 - Module 3
CCNA 1 - Module 3
What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names
2.
What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax
3.
What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
FTP
4.
What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server
5.
Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
application
6.
What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software
7.
What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
8.
What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP
9.
Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA
10.
Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP
11.
Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
12.
As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption
13.
Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
14.
What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
DNS
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
16.
What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers
17.
What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
SMB
18.
A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce
19.
A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
20.
How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between conn
1.
What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names
2.
What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax
3.
What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
FTP
4.
What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server
5.
Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
application
6.
What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software
7.
What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
8.
What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP
9.
Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA
10.
Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP
11.
Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
12.
As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption
13.
Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
14.
What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
DNS
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
16.
What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers
17.
What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
SMB
18.
A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce
19.
A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
20.
How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to th
CCNA 1 - Module 3
1.What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names
2.
What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax
3.
What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
FTP
4.
What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server
5.
Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
application
6.
What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software
7.
What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
8.
What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP
9.
Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA
10.
Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP
11.
Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
12.
As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption
13.
Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
14.
What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
DNS
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
16.
What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers
17.
What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
SMB
18.
A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce
19.
A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
20.
How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between conn
e service
CCNA 1 - Module 4
CCNA 1 - Module 4
1
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
**The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2
After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728
3
Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
**acknowledgments
source and destination
4
Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6
Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7
Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
**1850
3431
3475
8
Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9
During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10
With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11
Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS
12
What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
**flow control
**low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13
What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments
14
What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port
15
Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16
Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
**identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17
Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
**encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18
Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network
19
Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.
20
Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
**UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
1
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
**The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2
After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728
3
Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
**acknowledgments
source and destination
4
Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6
Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7
Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
**1850
3431
3475
8
Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9
During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10
With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11
Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS
12
What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
**flow control
**low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13
What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments
14
What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port
15
Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16
Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
**identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17
Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
**encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18
Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network
19
Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.
20
Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
**UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
CCNA 1 - Module 5
CCNA 1 - Module 5
1
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
2
What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address
3
In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum
5
Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address
6
Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1
7
If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.
8
What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9
What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
**static
standard
10
When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
**The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
**The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11
What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
**gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership
12
What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address
13
Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge
14
What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
**limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility
15
Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
**4
5
7
8
11
16
Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
**If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20
What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
**prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21
What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
CCNA 1 - Module 6
CCNA 1 - Module 6
89,4%
1
How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32 **
2
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192 **
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252
3
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33 **
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
4
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27 **
/25
/28
5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network. **
6
What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0 **
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
7
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address. **
This is not a valid address.
8
What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded **
varies in length **
is used to forward packets **
uses flat addressing
9
What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000 **
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
10
A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160 **
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
11
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host. **
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
12
What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host. **
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host. **
13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254 **
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192 **
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224
14
Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space **
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service **
authentication and encryption **
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4
15
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing **
16
What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities **
addressing simplification
17
Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70 **
192.168.99.5 **
172.18.88.90 **
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5
18
Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router. **
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself. **
19
Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26 **
172.16.4.193 /26 **
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27 **
20
What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network **
an octet
a radi **
21
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. **
22
Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers **
network printers **
routers **
remote workstations
laptops
89,4%
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