Monday 10 November 2008

CCNA4 v4.0 download(updated 24/10/2008)

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CCNA 3 FINAL v4.0 (91,8%) Updated 20/9/2008

-----------4 New Question Updated 30/10/08-----------------
1
Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?

requires no authentication

uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm

requires the use of an authentication server

requires a mutually agreed upon password


2



Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. What will be pruned in the VTP advertisements from switch ST-C to switch ST-1?
VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
VLAN 1, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 2 through VLAN 29, and VLAN 31 through VLAN 1000




3



Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will drop the packet.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.




4


Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.

An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.

An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.


-------------------/4 New Question----------------------------------------


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1

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the
Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied

to the switch?


Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254


Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254



Switch(config)# interface vlan 10 ******TRUE
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254


Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2


Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?

802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. ******TRUE
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.




3
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk. ******TRUE
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4

Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID ******TRUE

OFDM

WEP

DSSS

5

Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?

SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.

SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop. ******TRUE

SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.

SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS
routing
trunking ******TRUE
VPN

7

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port. ******TRUE
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port. ******TRUE
8
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain. ******TRUE
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number. ******TRUE
9


Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN. ******TRUE
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk. ******TRUE
11
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration. ******TRUE
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated. ******TRUE

13

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3 ******TRUE


add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table

forward the frame out Interface3


discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces

forward the frame out Interface2
14

Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies. ******TRUE
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use. ******TRUE
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15


Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28 ******TRUE
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk. ******TRUE
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4. ******TRUE
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2. ******TRUE
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18
Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
computer C and Router1 ******TRUE
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The SSH version number is wrong.

SSH has been configured on the wrong line.

Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.

The transport input command is configured incorrectly. ******TRUE

20
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C ******TRUE
Cat-D
21
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 ******TRUE
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?

The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.

Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15. ******TRUE

This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23

Which three statements are ******TRUE regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
requires the use of subinterfaces on the router ******TRUE
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces ******TRUE
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface ******TRUE
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

24

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?


The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain. ******TRUE
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)

S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2 ******TRUE
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3 ******TRUE

26
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

The switch is sending and receiving data frames. ******TRUE
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password. ******TRUE
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28

What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
reduced contention for bandwidth ******TRUE
reduced size of the physical layout
increased fault tolerance of the network ******TRUE
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
simplification of management and troubleshooting ******TRUE
29
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced. ******TRUE
A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use. ******TRUE
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design. ******TRUE
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1. ******TRUE

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

31

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
Gateway and CS1 ******TRUE
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32

Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1. ******TRUE
The flash directory contains the IOS image. ******TRUE
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex. ******TRUE

33

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked. ******TRUE
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting. ******TRUE

34

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol. ******TRUE
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are ******TRUE about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2. ******TRUE
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated. ******TRUE

36

What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
Select the correct VTP mode and version. ******TRUE
Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain. ******TRUE
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain. ******TRUE
37


Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C ******TRUE
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

38
Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ******TRUE?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration. ******TRUE
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.


39
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are ******TRUE regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch. ******TRUE
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch. ******TRUE
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

40

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

The switch ports are on different VLANs. ******TRUE

The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
The hosts are configured on different logical networks. ******TRUE
A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2. ******TRUE
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F ******TRUE
42
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1
switch SW1 ******TRUE
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
43
Top of Form
Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers. ******TRUE
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking. ******TRUE
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45
What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
force the port to be a part of a single vlan ******TRUE

46


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is ******TRUE regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs ******TRUE.


47

Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
BSSID ******TRUE
ESSID

48


Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?

A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped. ******TRUE
The security violation count will be incremented.
49
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
transparent ******TRUE

50
Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser. ******TRUE
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51
Top of Form
What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries. ******TRUE
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52


What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range ******TRUE
permits increased data rates ******TRUE
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility






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1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.

Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.

The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.

All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.



2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?


The username and password are not configured correctly.

The authentication method is not configured correctly.

The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

The vtys are not configured correctly.



3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.

The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.

The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.

The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.



4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs

tricks users into running the infected software

a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event

exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network



5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.

The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.

The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.

Port address translation is in effect.



6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?

Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.

Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.

Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.

Company A is closer to the service provider.




7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.


8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)


This network is experiencing congestion.

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Data is not flowing in this network.

The network is discarding eligible packets.

The DLCI is globally significant.



9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

Configure dynamic NAT with overload.



10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6

NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address

a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2

static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses



11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2


HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2



12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)

A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.

A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.

It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.

The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.

When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.

Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.



13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP



14.
An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

application layer



15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)

when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP


when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled


when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.

Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.

The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.


17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?

broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections

satellite based network connections

dedicated point-to-point circuits

Frame Relay PVCs



18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type

interface reset

PPP negotiation failure

unplugged cable



19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

A modem terminates a digital local loop.

A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

A modem terminates an analog local loop.

A router is commonly considered a DTE device.


A router is commonly considered a DCE device.



20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.



21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.

LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.

The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.



22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.

The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.

A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.

A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.



23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?

MAC address of the Orlando router

MAC address of the DC router

192.168.1.25

192.168.1.26

DLCI 100

DLCI 200



24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?

lower cost

lower latency and jitter

variable bandwidth capacity

fewer physical router interfaces



25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP

CDP updates

SNMP services

RIP authentication




26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.



27. Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.



28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.


Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .



29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.

The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.

The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.

The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.



30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)

It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.

It defines a process for managing security violations.

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.


The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.

It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.

It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.


31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.



32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?

All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.

The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.

All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.

Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.



33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

use the copy tftp: flash: command

boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually

telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password

boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes



34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)

The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.

The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.

The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.

A table of static mappings can be searched.

The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.



35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

data link

physical



36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface fa0/0/0, inbound

interface fa0/0/0, outbound

interface fa0/0/1, inbound

interface fa0/0/1, outbound



37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

SSH is unable to pass through NAT.

There are incorrect access control list entries.

The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.

The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.



38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.

Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.

There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.

The physical connection between the two routers has failed.

The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.



39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?

Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2



40.
An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.

RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.



41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

Wi-Fi

WiMAX

satellite

Metro Ethernet



42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.

Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.



43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?

From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.

From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.

From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.

From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.



44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?

defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network



45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.

Which statement applies to this situation?


Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.

Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.


46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

172.30.20.1:3333

192.168.1.2:80



47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.

Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.

Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.

Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.


Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.

Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.



48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.



49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)

Security options are build into IPv6.

IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.

IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.

There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.

When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.



50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.

The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.

The RIPng network command is not configured.

The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.



51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?

demilitarized zone (DMZ)


demarcation point

local loop

cloud



52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.

The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.



53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)

exchange information about the status of virtual circuits

map DLCIs to network addresses

provide flow control

provide error notification

provide congestion notification

send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC



54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

CHAP

Stacker


IPCP

CDPCP

Multilink



55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)

checksum

digital certificates

encapsulation

encryption




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CCNA4 Module 5 ACLs(100%)




CCNA4 v 4.0 Exam chapter 5 ACLs

>>DOWNLOAD<<

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

blocked in and out of all interfaces

blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces

permitted in and out of all interfaces

blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces


2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

packet size

protocol suite

source address

destination address

source router interface

destination router interface


3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

by destination UDP port

by protocol type

by source IP address

by source UDP port

by destination IP address


4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.

Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.

Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.

Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.


5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

close to the source

close to the destination

on an Ethernet port

on a serial port


6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.

A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.

A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.

A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.

Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.


7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.

The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.

The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.


8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.

All traffic is implicitly denied.

FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.

Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.

Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.


9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

Both ACLs are applied to the interface.

The network administrator receives an error.

Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.


10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?


ISP Fa0/0 outbound

R2 S0/0/1 inbound

R3 Fa0/0 inbound

R3 S0/0/1 outbound


11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

Only named ACLs allow comments.

Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.

Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.

Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.

More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.


12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

extended ACL

reflexive ACL

console logging

authentication

Telnet connectivity

user account with a privilege level of 15


13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?


It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.

It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.

It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.


14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

dynamic

port-based

reflexive

time-based


15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?


TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.

TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.

Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.


16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.

The access list statements are misconfigured.

All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.

No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.


17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?


Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.

The access list is applied in the wrong direction.

The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.

The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.


18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?


Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.

Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.

Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.


19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true

Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.

They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.

When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.


20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.

Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.

Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.

In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.


21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol

the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination

the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic

the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list


22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255

172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255

172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255


23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)

Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.

The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.

The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.

A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.

A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.


24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?


It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.

It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.

It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.

It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.


25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?


Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.

Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.

Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.


26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?


The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.

The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.

The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.

The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.